SSC CGL

For most posts, a Bachelor's Degree from a recognised University or equivalent (Para 8.4.1). Three have extra requirements: Junior Statistical Officer — a Bachelor's Degree in any subject with at least 60% marks in Mathematics at 12th standard level, or a Bachelor's Degree in any subject with Statistics as one of the subjects at degree level (8.2.1); Statistical Investigator Grade-II — a Bachelor degree in Statistics, Mathematics, Economics, Demography, Population Studies, Operation Research, Information Technology, Computer Science, Computer Engineering, Computer Technology, Computer Application, Data Science or Artificial Intelligence (8.3.1); Assistant Audit Officer / Assistant Accounts Officer — a Bachelor's Degree, with CA / CMA / CS / M.Com / MBS / MBA (Finance) / Masters in Business Economics as desirable (8.1). Final-year candidates may apply but must possess the essential qualification as on 01.08.2026 (8.5). The result of the qualifying examination must have been declared by the cut-off date: "Mere processing of the result by the University/ Institute by the cut-off date does not fulfill the EQ requirement" (8.8).

Age is reckoned as on 01-08-2026 (Para 5). Four bands apply depending on the post, each expressed as a date-of-birth range — born not earlier than the first date and not later than the second (Para 5.1): 18–27 years, 02-08-1999 to 01-08-2008; 20–30 years, 02-08-1996 to 01-08-2006; 18–30 years, 02-08-1996 to 01-08-2008; 18–32 years, 02-08-1994 to 01-08-2008.

The date of birth in your application must match the one in the Matriculation/Secondary certificate; no later change is considered (5.3).

Beyond the upper limit, with the Commission's category codes (Para 5.2): 01 SC/ST — 5 years; 02 OBC — 3 years; 03 PwBD — 10 years; 04 PwBD (OBC) — 13 years; 05 PwBD (SC/ST) — 15 years; 06 Ex-Servicemen — 3 years after deduction of the military service rendered from the actual age as on 01.08.2026; 08 Defence Personnel disabled in operations during hostilities with a foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence — 3 years; 09 the same, SC/ST — 8 years. Additionally, for Group "C" posts only: 10 Central Govt. civilian employees with not less than 3 years' regular continuous service as on the closing date — up to 40 years; 11 the same, SC/ST — up to 45 years; 12 Widows / Divorced Women / Women judicially separated and not remarried — up to 35 years; 13 the same, SC/ST — up to 40 years.

₹100 (Para 10.1). Women candidates and SC, ST, PwBD and Ex-servicemen candidates eligible for reservation are exempted from payment of fee (10.2). Payment is online only — BHIM UPI, Net Banking, or Visa/Mastercard/Maestro/RuPay debit cards (10.3). The Notice set the fee deadline at 23-06-2026 (23:00) (10.4); the reopening notice moved it to 26.06.2026 (23:00). If the fee does not reach SSC the application shows as "Incomplete" and is summarily rejected (10.5); fee once paid "shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor will it be adjusted against any other examination or selection" (10.6).

The Notice ran the window 21.05.2026–22.06.2026 (23:00), correction window 29-06-2026 to 01-07-2026. The Important Notice dated 23.06.2026 reopened applications for two days, to 25.06.2026 (23:00), after "more than 28 lakh candidates" had already applied; the crucial closing date for ascertaining eligibility became 25.06.2026, fee payment 26.06.2026 (23:00), correction window 01.07.2026 to 03.07.2026 (23:00), all other terms unchanged. These windows have now closed.

Yes — 3 days (Para 11.1). You may correct and re-submit twice, no more (11.2). Charges: ₹200 for the first correction and ₹500 for the second, "applicable to all candidates irrespective of their gender/ category" (11.4), payable online only and never refunded (11.5, 11.6). Only candidates whose completed application with fee reached the Commission in time could use it (11.3). The latest corrected application is the valid one and earlier ones are cancelled (11.7); if the correction charge is not received, the earlier application remains valid (11.8).

Three, in order of priority, within the same Region (12.2). "No request for change of Centre of Examination will be considered later under any circumstances."

Tier-I: 100 objective questions, 200 marks, 1 hour, with a 15-minute sectional timer for each of General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude and English Comprehension (25 questions/50 marks each) — 0.50 marks deducted for each wrong answer (13.8, 13.8.2). Tier-II Paper-I, Session-I (2h 15m): Section-I 60 questions/180 marks, Section-II 70 questions/210 marks, Section-III (Computer Knowledge Test) 20 questions/60 marks — 1 mark deducted for each wrong answer in Sections I, II and III (13.9.8). Session-II is 15 minutes of DEST. Paper-II (Statistics) and Paper-III (General Studies — Finance and Economics) are 100 questions/200 marks in 2 hours each, with 0.50 marks deducted per wrong answer (13.9, 13.9.8).

In Tier-I, in Sections I, II and III of Paper-I, and in Paper-II and Paper-III: UR 30%, OBC/EWS 25%, all other categories 20% (Para 16.1). For Section-IV (DEST) the bar is a maximum error percentage: UR 20%, OBC/EWS 25%, all other categories 30% (16.2). Section-III and Section-IV are qualifying but mandatory, with a separate higher cut-off in each for posts where Computer Proficiency or DEST is prescribed (16.5, 16.6).

Yes — DEST "will be mandatory for all the posts; however, it will be qualifying in nature" (13.9.10.3). It is one data entry task of about 2,000 key depressions in 15 minutes (13.9.10.2). PwBD-OH candidates may be exempted on an Annexure-XIV certificate from the Civil Surgeon of a Government Health Care Institution declaring them permanently unfit for the typing test; that exemption does not apply to posts where Computer Proficiency or DEST is prescribed, except Tax Assistant in CBDT. No other PwBD candidates are eligible for exemption (13.9.10.6).

On Tier-II alone: "Merit list (FRTA/Final Selection) will be prepared on the basis of overall performance of candidates in Tier-II Examination only" (16.10). For JSO and SI Gr-II it is Section-I + Section-II of Paper-I plus Paper-II (16.11.1); for AAO / Assistant Accounts Officer, Section-I + Section-II of Paper-I plus Paper-III, subject to qualifying Section-III of Paper-I (16.11.2); for all other posts, Section-I + Section-II of Paper-I only — 180 + 210 = 390 marks — subject to qualifying Section-III and Section-IV (16.12–16.14). Tier-I marks do not enter the merit list.

Yes, where the Computer Based Examination is held in multiple shifts. Para 13.2: marks "will be normalized by using the procedure published by the Commission vide Notice dated 02-06-2025 and such normalized scores will be used to determine final merit and cut-off marks." That procedure converts raw scores to percentiles separately within each shift, merges the shifts, and pulls the percentiles back onto the marks scale by linear interpolation.

Criteria are applied one after another until the tie resolves (Para 17.1). For AAO / Assistant Accounts Officer: marks in Paper-III, then marks in Section-I of Paper-I, then date of birth with the older candidate placed higher, then alphabetical order of names. For JSO / Statistical Investigator Grade-II: marks in Paper-II, then Section-I of Paper-I, then date of birth, then alphabetical order. For all other posts: marks in Section-I of Paper-I, then date of birth (older higher), then alphabetical order.

Tentative answer keys go on the website after the examination and you may submit online representations within the stipulated time on payment of ₹100 per question, non-refundable; representations by letter, application or email are not entertained and the Commission's decision is final (13.3). The Challenge/Objection Management System guidelines dated 10.04.2026 apply to this examination (13.4). Re-checking is not available: "There shall be no provision for re-evaluation/ re-checking of the scores of any stage/ Tier(s) of the examination" (13.7).

Preferences are taken through the Online Option Form before declaration of FRTA/result, and "A candidate will not be considered for a Post and Ministry/Department/Organization, if he has not indicated his preference for it" (16.7). Candidates who do not submit preferences within the stipulated time "will not be considered for any post in the FRTA/result", are given no second opportunity, and grievances on this are summarily rejected (16.8).

No. Options once submitted are "final and will not be changed subsequently under any circumstances" (16.7) and allotment is "FINAL and IRREVERSIBLE" (16.15). Once a post is allotted, no change is made for non-fulfilment of that post's physical, medical or educational standards — instead "his candidature will be rejected and he will not be considered for any other posts" (16.16). Posts carrying Physical Standards, Physical Tests and Medical Standards are listed at Para 15.7: Inspector (Central Excise), Inspector (Examiner) and Inspector (Preventive Officer) in CBIC; Inspector and Sub-Inspector in CBN; Sub-Inspector/JIO in NCB; Sub-Inspector in CBI; Sub-Inspector in NIA; and posts in BRO — for which only male candidates are eligible (4.3). Those tests are conducted by the User Department after final selection (15.9).

Scribe/assistive technology is given, if desired, to PwBD candidates with blindness, locomotor disability (both arms affected) or cerebral palsy (7.1); to other PwBD candidates on a certificate from a Government CMO/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent in the Annexure-I proforma (7.2); and to PwD candidates below 40% disability with difficulty in writing, on an Annexure-IA certificate (7.3) — only if opted for in the online application form (7.4). Compensatory time is 20 minutes per hour of examination, also given to eligible candidates who do not use a scribe (7.9, 7.10); DEST carries an extra 5 minutes (13.9.10.7). Your own scribe must have completed One Time Registration and Aadhaar authentication, must not be a candidate in this examination, and must be one step below your own qualification (7.5).

All posts carry All India Service Liability — "Candidates selected for appointment are liable to serve anywhere in India" (16.22) — and you may be allotted a State/UT/Zone by the User Department and required to acquire proficiency in its local language for confirmation (16.23). Selection is not appointment: "Success in the examination confers no right of appointment unless Government is satisfied… that the candidate is suitable in all respects" (16.20); admission at all stages is provisional (16.21).

Represent to the concerned Regional Office of the Commission within two months of the declaration of the result, or two weeks before the next stage of the examination, whichever is earlier (16.24). Separately, if you are finally selected and hear nothing from the Commission or the User Department within one year of the final result, you must contact the User Department (16.25).

Para 15.3: "SSC does not maintain the waiting list/reserve list in respect of multi factor examinations conducted by it." A Sliding Mechanism operates instead; its First Round of Tentative Allocation (FRTA) modality is explained in the Commission's notices dated 03.03.2026 and 08.04.2026. The CGLE 2025 final result write-up dated 14.05.2026 adds that unfilled vacancies and vacancies arising out of non-joining "will be carried forward to the subsequent year(s) by the concerned Departments/ Organisations."

No. Para 23 (Important Instructions to Candidates), item (j): only one online application is allowed during the normal application period, and "In case, more than one application of a candidate with different registration numbers is detected, all the applications will be rejected by the Commission and his candidature for the examination will be cancelled." A candidate who submits multiple applications and appears more than once has the candidature cancelled and is debarred as per rules. Eligibility itself is bounded by Para 5 (age) and Para 8 (qualification), both as on 01-08-2026.